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The use of the spellings -zz- vs. -z-

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4

Is there any reason why some words are spelled with -zz-, but others are spelled with -z- between vowels?

My understanding is that either spelling can correspond to either of the following two consonant sounds: a long voiceless affricate [t.t͡s] or a long voiced affricate [d.d͡z]. (Phonologically, I've seen sources that indicate that Italian speakers may think of these as /t͡s.t͡s/ and /d͡z.d͡z/ respectively.) The linguistic sources I've read say that single [t͡s] and [d͡z] don't occur between vowels in (standard) Italian.

But some introductory descriptions that I see online use wishy-washy phrasing, like this one here:

Double z is pronounced almost the same as single z.

("Italian Language Guide". Bolding added by me.)

Is there any basis for saying that Italian speakers really pronounce -zz- "almost" the same as -z- rather than exactly the same as -z- (between vowels)?

If they are pronounced the same (as I think), why are some words spelled with -zz- and others with -z-?

pronunciation spelling geminate-consonants

share|improve this question

edited 23 mins ago

sumelic

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sumelicsumelic

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• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  Welcome to Italian.SE!
  
  – Charo♦
  56 mins ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  Given how widely pronunciation varies among the speakers, I am skeptical of any linguistic source saying that this or that phoneme "doesn't occur". My intuition is that, since Italian is a language that was "written first, spoken later", whoever came up with those words imagined a distinction between z and zz (possibly due to the spelling in Greek?), but then speakers did pretty much whatever they wanted. I'll try to see if I can find some more concrete sources.
  
  – Denis Nardin♦
  30 mins ago
  
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @DenisNardin: Those source probably simply refer to Standard Italian.
  
  – DaG
  24 mins ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @DenisNardin: Regional differences are a thing, but so is standard pronunciation, and learners as well as native speakers should be encouraged to stick to that. Some regional parlances are more frowned upon than others, but that's another thing.
  
  – Vincenzo Oliva
  18 secs ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

4

Is there any reason why some words are spelled with -zz-, but others are spelled with -z- between vowels?

My understanding is that either spelling can correspond to either of the following two consonant sounds: a long voiceless affricate [t.t͡s] or a long voiced affricate [d.d͡z]. (Phonologically, I've seen sources that indicate that Italian speakers may think of these as /t͡s.t͡s/ and /d͡z.d͡z/ respectively.) The linguistic sources I've read say that single [t͡s] and [d͡z] don't occur between vowels in (standard) Italian.

But some introductory descriptions that I see online use wishy-washy phrasing, like this one here:

Double z is pronounced almost the same as single z.

("Italian Language Guide". Bolding added by me.)

Is there any basis for saying that Italian speakers really pronounce -zz- "almost" the same as -z- rather than exactly the same as -z- (between vowels)?

If they are pronounced the same (as I think), why are some words spelled with -zz- and others with -z-?

pronunciation spelling geminate-consonants

share|improve this question

edited 23 mins ago

sumelic

asked 4 hours ago

sumelicsumelic

1415

New contributor

sumelic is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

• 
  
  
  

  
  1
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  Welcome to Italian.SE!
  
  – Charo♦
  56 mins ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  Given how widely pronunciation varies among the speakers, I am skeptical of any linguistic source saying that this or that phoneme "doesn't occur". My intuition is that, since Italian is a language that was "written first, spoken later", whoever came up with those words imagined a distinction between z and zz (possibly due to the spelling in Greek?), but then speakers did pretty much whatever they wanted. I'll try to see if I can find some more concrete sources.
  
  – Denis Nardin♦
  30 mins ago
  
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @DenisNardin: Those source probably simply refer to Standard Italian.
  
  – DaG
  24 mins ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  
  @DenisNardin: Regional differences are a thing, but so is standard pronunciation, and learners as well as native speakers should be encouraged to stick to that. Some regional parlances are more frowned upon than others, but that's another thing.
  
  – Vincenzo Oliva
  18 secs ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

Is there any reason why some words are spelled with -zz-, but others are spelled with -z- between vowels?

My understanding is that either spelling can correspond to either of the following two consonant sounds: a long voiceless affricate [t.t͡s] or a long voiced affricate [d.d͡z]. (Phonologically, I've seen sources that indicate that Italian speakers may think of these as /t͡s.t͡s/ and /d͡z.d͡z/ respectively.) The linguistic sources I've read say that single [t͡s] and [d͡z] don't occur between vowels in (standard) Italian.

But some introductory descriptions that I see online use wishy-washy phrasing, like this one here:

Double z is pronounced almost the same as single z.

("Italian Language Guide". Bolding added by me.)

Is there any basis for saying that Italian speakers really pronounce -zz- "almost" the same as -z- rather than exactly the same as -z- (between vowels)?

If they are pronounced the same (as I think), why are some words spelled with -zz- and others with -z-?

pronunciation spelling geminate-consonants

share|improve this question

edited 23 mins ago

sumelic

asked 4 hours ago

sumelicsumelic

1415

New contributor

sumelic is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

share|improve this question

edited 23 mins ago

sumelic

asked 4 hours ago

sumelicsumelic

1415

New contributor

sumelic is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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share|improve this question

edited 23 mins ago

sumelic

asked 4 hours ago

sumelicsumelic

1415

New contributor

sumelic is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

asked 4 hours ago

sumelicsumelic

1415

New contributor

sumelic is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

asked 4 hours ago

sumelicsumelic

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1 Answer
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This isn't a complete answer, but while Googling to try to find out more, I came across the following explanation for why some speakers might think there is a difference in pronunciation:

The orthographic distinction between 'z' and 'zz' induces some speakers to distinguish length in pronunciation (spazi 'spaces' spatsi vs. spazzi 'you sweep' spattsi) despite the fact that, in the standard language, both spellings are pronounced long in intervocalic position. Given that northern Italians often fail to observe consonantal length distinctions, in their speech the differentiation of the two 'z''s may arise from hypercorrection.

(Martin Maiden, 1994, A Linguistic History of Italian, 3.1.3.4)

Maiden goes on to say that

In some southern varieties, however, 'z' is pronounced long when it continues original consonant + [tj] (e.g. in concezione 'conception', azione 'action' < conceptionem, actionem), but short when it continues original vowel + [tj] (e.g. in nazione 'nation', stazione 'station' < nationem, stationem).

But the distinction for this group of speakers doesn't seem to be related to the spelling. So I still don't know where the -zz- vs. -z- spelling distinction comes from.

share|improve this answer

edited 4 hours ago

answered 4 hours ago

sumelicsumelic

1415

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sumelic is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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2

This isn't a complete answer, but while Googling to try to find out more, I came across the following explanation for why some speakers might think there is a difference in pronunciation:

The orthographic distinction between 'z' and 'zz' induces some speakers to distinguish length in pronunciation (spazi 'spaces' spatsi vs. spazzi 'you sweep' spattsi) despite the fact that, in the standard language, both spellings are pronounced long in intervocalic position. Given that northern Italians often fail to observe consonantal length distinctions, in their speech the differentiation of the two 'z''s may arise from hypercorrection.

(Martin Maiden, 1994, A Linguistic History of Italian, 3.1.3.4)

Maiden goes on to say that

In some southern varieties, however, 'z' is pronounced long when it continues original consonant + [tj] (e.g. in concezione 'conception', azione 'action' < conceptionem, actionem), but short when it continues original vowel + [tj] (e.g. in nazione 'nation', stazione 'station' < nationem, stationem).

But the distinction for this group of speakers doesn't seem to be related to the spelling. So I still don't know where the -zz- vs. -z- spelling distinction comes from.

share|improve this answer

edited 4 hours ago

answered 4 hours ago

sumelicsumelic

1415

New contributor

sumelic is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

add a comment | 

2

This isn't a complete answer, but while Googling to try to find out more, I came across the following explanation for why some speakers might think there is a difference in pronunciation:

The orthographic distinction between 'z' and 'zz' induces some speakers to distinguish length in pronunciation (spazi 'spaces' spatsi vs. spazzi 'you sweep' spattsi) despite the fact that, in the standard language, both spellings are pronounced long in intervocalic position. Given that northern Italians often fail to observe consonantal length distinctions, in their speech the differentiation of the two 'z''s may arise from hypercorrection.

(Martin Maiden, 1994, A Linguistic History of Italian, 3.1.3.4)

Maiden goes on to say that

In some southern varieties, however, 'z' is pronounced long when it continues original consonant + [tj] (e.g. in concezione 'conception', azione 'action' < conceptionem, actionem), but short when it continues original vowel + [tj] (e.g. in nazione 'nation', stazione 'station' < nationem, stationem).

But the distinction for this group of speakers doesn't seem to be related to the spelling. So I still don't know where the -zz- vs. -z- spelling distinction comes from.

share|improve this answer

edited 4 hours ago

answered 4 hours ago

sumelicsumelic

1415

New contributor

sumelic is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

add a comment | 

This isn't a complete answer, but while Googling to try to find out more, I came across the following explanation for why some speakers might think there is a difference in pronunciation:

The orthographic distinction between 'z' and 'zz' induces some speakers to distinguish length in pronunciation (spazi 'spaces' spatsi vs. spazzi 'you sweep' spattsi) despite the fact that, in the standard language, both spellings are pronounced long in intervocalic position. Given that northern Italians often fail to observe consonantal length distinctions, in their speech the differentiation of the two 'z''s may arise from hypercorrection.

(Martin Maiden, 1994, A Linguistic History of Italian, 3.1.3.4)

Maiden goes on to say that

In some southern varieties, however, 'z' is pronounced long when it continues original consonant + [tj] (e.g. in concezione 'conception', azione 'action' < conceptionem, actionem), but short when it continues original vowel + [tj] (e.g. in nazione 'nation', stazione 'station' < nationem, stationem).

But the distinction for this group of speakers doesn't seem to be related to the spelling. So I still don't know where the -zz- vs. -z- spelling distinction comes from.

share|improve this answer

edited 4 hours ago

answered 4 hours ago

sumelicsumelic

1415

New contributor

sumelic is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

share|improve this answer

edited 4 hours ago

answered 4 hours ago

sumelicsumelic

1415

New contributor

sumelic is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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answered 4 hours ago

sumelicsumelic

1415

New contributor

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answered 4 hours ago

sumelicsumelic

1415