Show that the following sequence converges. Please Critique my proof.Prove that a sequence converges to a...
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Show that the following sequence converges. Please Critique my proof.
Prove that a sequence converges to a finite limit iff lim inf equals lim supShow the convergence of sequenceSimple proof that this sequence converges [verification]Proof that the sequence $a_n=frac{3n+2}{n^2+1}$ converges using the Epsilon N proofQuestion about the proof that the sequence ${a_{j}cdot b_{j}}$ converges to $alpha beta $Show that the sequence ${a_{n+1}}$ converges to $sqrt{2}$Showing that a series converges uniformlyshow that if a subsequence of a cauchy sequence converges, then the whole sequence convergesShow that the sequence $a_n=frac{cos(n^2+n)}{n^2}$ converges to $0$.Proof that the sequence $left{frac{5n^2-6}{2n^3-7n}right}$ converges to $0$
$begingroup$
The problem is as follows:
Let ${a_n}$ be a sequence of nonnegative numbers such that
$$
a_{n+1}leq a_n+frac{(-1)^n}{n}.
$$
Show that $a_n$ converges.
My (wrong) proof:
Notice that
$$
|a_{n+1}-a_n|leq left|frac{(-1)^n}{n}right|leqfrac{1}{n}
$$
and since it is known that $frac{1}{n}rightarrow 0$ as $nrightarrow infty$. We see that we can arbitarily bound, $|a_{n+1}-a_n|$. Thus, $a_n$ converges.
My question:
This is a question from a comprehensive exam I found and am using to review.
Should I argue that we should select $N$ so that $n>N$ implies $left|frac{1}{n}right|<epsilon$ as well?
Notes: Currently working on the proof.
real-analysis sequences-and-series convergence fake-proofs
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The problem is as follows:
Let ${a_n}$ be a sequence of nonnegative numbers such that
$$
a_{n+1}leq a_n+frac{(-1)^n}{n}.
$$
Show that $a_n$ converges.
My (wrong) proof:
Notice that
$$
|a_{n+1}-a_n|leq left|frac{(-1)^n}{n}right|leqfrac{1}{n}
$$
and since it is known that $frac{1}{n}rightarrow 0$ as $nrightarrow infty$. We see that we can arbitarily bound, $|a_{n+1}-a_n|$. Thus, $a_n$ converges.
My question:
This is a question from a comprehensive exam I found and am using to review.
Should I argue that we should select $N$ so that $n>N$ implies $left|frac{1}{n}right|<epsilon$ as well?
Notes: Currently working on the proof.
real-analysis sequences-and-series convergence fake-proofs
$endgroup$
4
$begingroup$
Your proof is not correct. Your arguments would also work for $a_n = sum_{i=1}^n frac 1 i$, which does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Falrach
2 hours ago
$begingroup$
Note that you not only need to bound $left| a_{n+1} - a_n right|$ arbitrarily small, but also $left| a_{m} - a_n right|$ for all $m,n geq N$ (where $N$ can be chosen according to the bound).
$endgroup$
– Maximilian Janisch
34 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The problem is as follows:
Let ${a_n}$ be a sequence of nonnegative numbers such that
$$
a_{n+1}leq a_n+frac{(-1)^n}{n}.
$$
Show that $a_n$ converges.
My (wrong) proof:
Notice that
$$
|a_{n+1}-a_n|leq left|frac{(-1)^n}{n}right|leqfrac{1}{n}
$$
and since it is known that $frac{1}{n}rightarrow 0$ as $nrightarrow infty$. We see that we can arbitarily bound, $|a_{n+1}-a_n|$. Thus, $a_n$ converges.
My question:
This is a question from a comprehensive exam I found and am using to review.
Should I argue that we should select $N$ so that $n>N$ implies $left|frac{1}{n}right|<epsilon$ as well?
Notes: Currently working on the proof.
real-analysis sequences-and-series convergence fake-proofs
$endgroup$
The problem is as follows:
Let ${a_n}$ be a sequence of nonnegative numbers such that
$$
a_{n+1}leq a_n+frac{(-1)^n}{n}.
$$
Show that $a_n$ converges.
My (wrong) proof:
Notice that
$$
|a_{n+1}-a_n|leq left|frac{(-1)^n}{n}right|leqfrac{1}{n}
$$
and since it is known that $frac{1}{n}rightarrow 0$ as $nrightarrow infty$. We see that we can arbitarily bound, $|a_{n+1}-a_n|$. Thus, $a_n$ converges.
My question:
This is a question from a comprehensive exam I found and am using to review.
Should I argue that we should select $N$ so that $n>N$ implies $left|frac{1}{n}right|<epsilon$ as well?
Notes: Currently working on the proof.
real-analysis sequences-and-series convergence fake-proofs
real-analysis sequences-and-series convergence fake-proofs
edited 32 mins ago
GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
13.9k72650
13.9k72650
asked 2 hours ago
DarelDarel
1049
1049
4
$begingroup$
Your proof is not correct. Your arguments would also work for $a_n = sum_{i=1}^n frac 1 i$, which does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Falrach
2 hours ago
$begingroup$
Note that you not only need to bound $left| a_{n+1} - a_n right|$ arbitrarily small, but also $left| a_{m} - a_n right|$ for all $m,n geq N$ (where $N$ can be chosen according to the bound).
$endgroup$
– Maximilian Janisch
34 mins ago
add a comment |
4
$begingroup$
Your proof is not correct. Your arguments would also work for $a_n = sum_{i=1}^n frac 1 i$, which does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Falrach
2 hours ago
$begingroup$
Note that you not only need to bound $left| a_{n+1} - a_n right|$ arbitrarily small, but also $left| a_{m} - a_n right|$ for all $m,n geq N$ (where $N$ can be chosen according to the bound).
$endgroup$
– Maximilian Janisch
34 mins ago
4
4
$begingroup$
Your proof is not correct. Your arguments would also work for $a_n = sum_{i=1}^n frac 1 i$, which does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Falrach
2 hours ago
$begingroup$
Your proof is not correct. Your arguments would also work for $a_n = sum_{i=1}^n frac 1 i$, which does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Falrach
2 hours ago
$begingroup$
Note that you not only need to bound $left| a_{n+1} - a_n right|$ arbitrarily small, but also $left| a_{m} - a_n right|$ for all $m,n geq N$ (where $N$ can be chosen according to the bound).
$endgroup$
– Maximilian Janisch
34 mins ago
$begingroup$
Note that you not only need to bound $left| a_{n+1} - a_n right|$ arbitrarily small, but also $left| a_{m} - a_n right|$ for all $m,n geq N$ (where $N$ can be chosen according to the bound).
$endgroup$
– Maximilian Janisch
34 mins ago
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Consider $b_n = a_n + sum_{k=1}^{n-1} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}$. Then
$$ b_{n+1}
= a_{n+1} + sum_{k=1}^{n} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}
leq a_n + frac{(-1)^n}{n} + sum_{k=1}^{n} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}
= b_n, $$
which shows that $(b_n)$ is non-increasing. Moreover, since $sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}$ converges by alternating series test and $(a_n)$ is non-negative, it follows that $(b_n)$ is bounded from below. Therefore $(b_n)$ converges, and so, $(a_n)$ converges as well.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Thank you, that's neat! One might add that this argument always works for lower-bounded $(a_n)$ with $a_{n+1}le a_n+c_n$ for some summable $(c_n)$ by setting $b_n=a_n-sum_{k=1}^{n-1}c_k$.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
19 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As pointed out in the comments, this approach does not work. However, you can show that $(a_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence by using that
$$ sum_{n=1}^infty (a_{n+1}-a_n)lesum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^nfrac{1}{n}<infty.$$
EDIT: I am sorry, that was a bit too fast. Since the sequence is not assumed to be increasing, this alone does not help. I wanted to delete the answer, but it has already been accepted which apparently makes that impossible.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Okay kind of a dumb question here. I forgot how this would imply that the sequence is Cauchy. Do you have a source where I can see this for myself? I know I saw it somewhere but my memory isn't working for me. I think one of the key thing was that all bounded monotone sequences converge or something like that.
$endgroup$
– Darel
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
That doesn't show that it's Cauchy. Cauchy doesn't mean that the difference between successive terms goes to zero, it mean that $max_{n>N} |a_N-a_n|$ goes to zero as N goes to zero.
$endgroup$
– Acccumulation
23 mins ago
$begingroup$
1.) I did not claim that, not even in my original answer. 2.) Read my edit.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
18 mins ago
$begingroup$
I unlocked it and gave appropriate credit to the clearer answer.
$endgroup$
– Darel
25 secs ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use $$sum_{k=1}^n(a_{k+1}-a_k)=a_{n+1}-a_1leqsum_{k=1}^nfrac{(-1)^k}{k}rightarrow -ln2$$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Be careful! The assumption is only an inequality.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
1 hour ago
1
$begingroup$
@Mars Plastic I see. It was typo.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rozenberg
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
That shows that $(a_n)$ is bounded above, but why is it convergent?
$endgroup$
– Martin R
28 mins ago
add a comment |
Your Answer
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Consider $b_n = a_n + sum_{k=1}^{n-1} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}$. Then
$$ b_{n+1}
= a_{n+1} + sum_{k=1}^{n} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}
leq a_n + frac{(-1)^n}{n} + sum_{k=1}^{n} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}
= b_n, $$
which shows that $(b_n)$ is non-increasing. Moreover, since $sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}$ converges by alternating series test and $(a_n)$ is non-negative, it follows that $(b_n)$ is bounded from below. Therefore $(b_n)$ converges, and so, $(a_n)$ converges as well.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Thank you, that's neat! One might add that this argument always works for lower-bounded $(a_n)$ with $a_{n+1}le a_n+c_n$ for some summable $(c_n)$ by setting $b_n=a_n-sum_{k=1}^{n-1}c_k$.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
19 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider $b_n = a_n + sum_{k=1}^{n-1} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}$. Then
$$ b_{n+1}
= a_{n+1} + sum_{k=1}^{n} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}
leq a_n + frac{(-1)^n}{n} + sum_{k=1}^{n} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}
= b_n, $$
which shows that $(b_n)$ is non-increasing. Moreover, since $sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}$ converges by alternating series test and $(a_n)$ is non-negative, it follows that $(b_n)$ is bounded from below. Therefore $(b_n)$ converges, and so, $(a_n)$ converges as well.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Thank you, that's neat! One might add that this argument always works for lower-bounded $(a_n)$ with $a_{n+1}le a_n+c_n$ for some summable $(c_n)$ by setting $b_n=a_n-sum_{k=1}^{n-1}c_k$.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
19 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider $b_n = a_n + sum_{k=1}^{n-1} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}$. Then
$$ b_{n+1}
= a_{n+1} + sum_{k=1}^{n} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}
leq a_n + frac{(-1)^n}{n} + sum_{k=1}^{n} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}
= b_n, $$
which shows that $(b_n)$ is non-increasing. Moreover, since $sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}$ converges by alternating series test and $(a_n)$ is non-negative, it follows that $(b_n)$ is bounded from below. Therefore $(b_n)$ converges, and so, $(a_n)$ converges as well.
$endgroup$
Consider $b_n = a_n + sum_{k=1}^{n-1} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}$. Then
$$ b_{n+1}
= a_{n+1} + sum_{k=1}^{n} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}
leq a_n + frac{(-1)^n}{n} + sum_{k=1}^{n} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}
= b_n, $$
which shows that $(b_n)$ is non-increasing. Moreover, since $sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{k}$ converges by alternating series test and $(a_n)$ is non-negative, it follows that $(b_n)$ is bounded from below. Therefore $(b_n)$ converges, and so, $(a_n)$ converges as well.
answered 36 mins ago
Sangchul LeeSangchul Lee
95k12170276
95k12170276
2
$begingroup$
Thank you, that's neat! One might add that this argument always works for lower-bounded $(a_n)$ with $a_{n+1}le a_n+c_n$ for some summable $(c_n)$ by setting $b_n=a_n-sum_{k=1}^{n-1}c_k$.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
19 mins ago
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
Thank you, that's neat! One might add that this argument always works for lower-bounded $(a_n)$ with $a_{n+1}le a_n+c_n$ for some summable $(c_n)$ by setting $b_n=a_n-sum_{k=1}^{n-1}c_k$.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
19 mins ago
2
2
$begingroup$
Thank you, that's neat! One might add that this argument always works for lower-bounded $(a_n)$ with $a_{n+1}le a_n+c_n$ for some summable $(c_n)$ by setting $b_n=a_n-sum_{k=1}^{n-1}c_k$.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
19 mins ago
$begingroup$
Thank you, that's neat! One might add that this argument always works for lower-bounded $(a_n)$ with $a_{n+1}le a_n+c_n$ for some summable $(c_n)$ by setting $b_n=a_n-sum_{k=1}^{n-1}c_k$.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
19 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As pointed out in the comments, this approach does not work. However, you can show that $(a_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence by using that
$$ sum_{n=1}^infty (a_{n+1}-a_n)lesum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^nfrac{1}{n}<infty.$$
EDIT: I am sorry, that was a bit too fast. Since the sequence is not assumed to be increasing, this alone does not help. I wanted to delete the answer, but it has already been accepted which apparently makes that impossible.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Okay kind of a dumb question here. I forgot how this would imply that the sequence is Cauchy. Do you have a source where I can see this for myself? I know I saw it somewhere but my memory isn't working for me. I think one of the key thing was that all bounded monotone sequences converge or something like that.
$endgroup$
– Darel
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
That doesn't show that it's Cauchy. Cauchy doesn't mean that the difference between successive terms goes to zero, it mean that $max_{n>N} |a_N-a_n|$ goes to zero as N goes to zero.
$endgroup$
– Acccumulation
23 mins ago
$begingroup$
1.) I did not claim that, not even in my original answer. 2.) Read my edit.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
18 mins ago
$begingroup$
I unlocked it and gave appropriate credit to the clearer answer.
$endgroup$
– Darel
25 secs ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As pointed out in the comments, this approach does not work. However, you can show that $(a_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence by using that
$$ sum_{n=1}^infty (a_{n+1}-a_n)lesum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^nfrac{1}{n}<infty.$$
EDIT: I am sorry, that was a bit too fast. Since the sequence is not assumed to be increasing, this alone does not help. I wanted to delete the answer, but it has already been accepted which apparently makes that impossible.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Okay kind of a dumb question here. I forgot how this would imply that the sequence is Cauchy. Do you have a source where I can see this for myself? I know I saw it somewhere but my memory isn't working for me. I think one of the key thing was that all bounded monotone sequences converge or something like that.
$endgroup$
– Darel
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
That doesn't show that it's Cauchy. Cauchy doesn't mean that the difference between successive terms goes to zero, it mean that $max_{n>N} |a_N-a_n|$ goes to zero as N goes to zero.
$endgroup$
– Acccumulation
23 mins ago
$begingroup$
1.) I did not claim that, not even in my original answer. 2.) Read my edit.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
18 mins ago
$begingroup$
I unlocked it and gave appropriate credit to the clearer answer.
$endgroup$
– Darel
25 secs ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As pointed out in the comments, this approach does not work. However, you can show that $(a_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence by using that
$$ sum_{n=1}^infty (a_{n+1}-a_n)lesum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^nfrac{1}{n}<infty.$$
EDIT: I am sorry, that was a bit too fast. Since the sequence is not assumed to be increasing, this alone does not help. I wanted to delete the answer, but it has already been accepted which apparently makes that impossible.
$endgroup$
As pointed out in the comments, this approach does not work. However, you can show that $(a_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence by using that
$$ sum_{n=1}^infty (a_{n+1}-a_n)lesum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^nfrac{1}{n}<infty.$$
EDIT: I am sorry, that was a bit too fast. Since the sequence is not assumed to be increasing, this alone does not help. I wanted to delete the answer, but it has already been accepted which apparently makes that impossible.
edited 50 mins ago
answered 2 hours ago
Mars PlasticMars Plastic
1,07918
1,07918
$begingroup$
Okay kind of a dumb question here. I forgot how this would imply that the sequence is Cauchy. Do you have a source where I can see this for myself? I know I saw it somewhere but my memory isn't working for me. I think one of the key thing was that all bounded monotone sequences converge or something like that.
$endgroup$
– Darel
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
That doesn't show that it's Cauchy. Cauchy doesn't mean that the difference between successive terms goes to zero, it mean that $max_{n>N} |a_N-a_n|$ goes to zero as N goes to zero.
$endgroup$
– Acccumulation
23 mins ago
$begingroup$
1.) I did not claim that, not even in my original answer. 2.) Read my edit.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
18 mins ago
$begingroup$
I unlocked it and gave appropriate credit to the clearer answer.
$endgroup$
– Darel
25 secs ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Okay kind of a dumb question here. I forgot how this would imply that the sequence is Cauchy. Do you have a source where I can see this for myself? I know I saw it somewhere but my memory isn't working for me. I think one of the key thing was that all bounded monotone sequences converge or something like that.
$endgroup$
– Darel
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
That doesn't show that it's Cauchy. Cauchy doesn't mean that the difference between successive terms goes to zero, it mean that $max_{n>N} |a_N-a_n|$ goes to zero as N goes to zero.
$endgroup$
– Acccumulation
23 mins ago
$begingroup$
1.) I did not claim that, not even in my original answer. 2.) Read my edit.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
18 mins ago
$begingroup$
I unlocked it and gave appropriate credit to the clearer answer.
$endgroup$
– Darel
25 secs ago
$begingroup$
Okay kind of a dumb question here. I forgot how this would imply that the sequence is Cauchy. Do you have a source where I can see this for myself? I know I saw it somewhere but my memory isn't working for me. I think one of the key thing was that all bounded monotone sequences converge or something like that.
$endgroup$
– Darel
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
Okay kind of a dumb question here. I forgot how this would imply that the sequence is Cauchy. Do you have a source where I can see this for myself? I know I saw it somewhere but my memory isn't working for me. I think one of the key thing was that all bounded monotone sequences converge or something like that.
$endgroup$
– Darel
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
That doesn't show that it's Cauchy. Cauchy doesn't mean that the difference between successive terms goes to zero, it mean that $max_{n>N} |a_N-a_n|$ goes to zero as N goes to zero.
$endgroup$
– Acccumulation
23 mins ago
$begingroup$
That doesn't show that it's Cauchy. Cauchy doesn't mean that the difference between successive terms goes to zero, it mean that $max_{n>N} |a_N-a_n|$ goes to zero as N goes to zero.
$endgroup$
– Acccumulation
23 mins ago
$begingroup$
1.) I did not claim that, not even in my original answer. 2.) Read my edit.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
18 mins ago
$begingroup$
1.) I did not claim that, not even in my original answer. 2.) Read my edit.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
18 mins ago
$begingroup$
I unlocked it and gave appropriate credit to the clearer answer.
$endgroup$
– Darel
25 secs ago
$begingroup$
I unlocked it and gave appropriate credit to the clearer answer.
$endgroup$
– Darel
25 secs ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use $$sum_{k=1}^n(a_{k+1}-a_k)=a_{n+1}-a_1leqsum_{k=1}^nfrac{(-1)^k}{k}rightarrow -ln2$$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Be careful! The assumption is only an inequality.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
1 hour ago
1
$begingroup$
@Mars Plastic I see. It was typo.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rozenberg
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
That shows that $(a_n)$ is bounded above, but why is it convergent?
$endgroup$
– Martin R
28 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use $$sum_{k=1}^n(a_{k+1}-a_k)=a_{n+1}-a_1leqsum_{k=1}^nfrac{(-1)^k}{k}rightarrow -ln2$$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Be careful! The assumption is only an inequality.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
1 hour ago
1
$begingroup$
@Mars Plastic I see. It was typo.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rozenberg
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
That shows that $(a_n)$ is bounded above, but why is it convergent?
$endgroup$
– Martin R
28 mins ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use $$sum_{k=1}^n(a_{k+1}-a_k)=a_{n+1}-a_1leqsum_{k=1}^nfrac{(-1)^k}{k}rightarrow -ln2$$
$endgroup$
Use $$sum_{k=1}^n(a_{k+1}-a_k)=a_{n+1}-a_1leqsum_{k=1}^nfrac{(-1)^k}{k}rightarrow -ln2$$
edited 1 hour ago
answered 1 hour ago
Michael RozenbergMichael Rozenberg
106k1893198
106k1893198
1
$begingroup$
Be careful! The assumption is only an inequality.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
1 hour ago
1
$begingroup$
@Mars Plastic I see. It was typo.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rozenberg
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
That shows that $(a_n)$ is bounded above, but why is it convergent?
$endgroup$
– Martin R
28 mins ago
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Be careful! The assumption is only an inequality.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
1 hour ago
1
$begingroup$
@Mars Plastic I see. It was typo.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rozenberg
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
That shows that $(a_n)$ is bounded above, but why is it convergent?
$endgroup$
– Martin R
28 mins ago
1
1
$begingroup$
Be careful! The assumption is only an inequality.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
Be careful! The assumption is only an inequality.
$endgroup$
– Mars Plastic
1 hour ago
1
1
$begingroup$
@Mars Plastic I see. It was typo.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rozenberg
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
@Mars Plastic I see. It was typo.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rozenberg
1 hour ago
$begingroup$
That shows that $(a_n)$ is bounded above, but why is it convergent?
$endgroup$
– Martin R
28 mins ago
$begingroup$
That shows that $(a_n)$ is bounded above, but why is it convergent?
$endgroup$
– Martin R
28 mins ago
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Your proof is not correct. Your arguments would also work for $a_n = sum_{i=1}^n frac 1 i$, which does not converge.
$endgroup$
– Falrach
2 hours ago
$begingroup$
Note that you not only need to bound $left| a_{n+1} - a_n right|$ arbitrarily small, but also $left| a_{m} - a_n right|$ for all $m,n geq N$ (where $N$ can be chosen according to the bound).
$endgroup$
– Maximilian Janisch
34 mins ago