Proof by contradiction - Getting my head around itLinearly Independent Set ProofLinearly Independent Set...

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Proof by contradiction - Getting my head around it


Linearly Independent Set ProofLinearly Independent Set Proof with Cross ProductA method of proof by contradiction for independence?Formal Proof ProblemRules for getting rid of assumptions for certain variables which do not appear in the conclusion of a proofUniqueness ProofFormal proof in Fitch - How to prove contradiction in a biconditional?formal Proof of an inequalityIs an axiom a proof?Non contradiction principle













2












$begingroup$


Hey there Math community!



I have a general question on contradiction and it's getting difficult to get my head around it.



Notes:




  1. I have some background in math and I have read several proofs by contradiction already


  2. For the sake of the argument, let us assume the fundamental theorem of arithmetic



As per the general strategy for the proof, we assume the opposite of something that we wish to prove to begin with.



i.e A number that does NOT have a unique decomposition of primes.



We then proceed by a logical sequence of steps to show that this leads to a contradiction.



**Thus our original assumption was untenable and hence we have proved that all numbers have a unique decomposition of primes.



I have a problem understanding the star marked step.



It's like saying, if we want to prove the man is happy, let us assume the man is unhappy.



A logical sequence of steps leads to a contradiction.



Hence, our initial assumption is flawed, so the man is 'happy'?!?



What ensures that 'NOT unhappy' means 'happy' in the realm of math?



Thank you for your time :)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    Hey there Math community!



    I have a general question on contradiction and it's getting difficult to get my head around it.



    Notes:




    1. I have some background in math and I have read several proofs by contradiction already


    2. For the sake of the argument, let us assume the fundamental theorem of arithmetic



    As per the general strategy for the proof, we assume the opposite of something that we wish to prove to begin with.



    i.e A number that does NOT have a unique decomposition of primes.



    We then proceed by a logical sequence of steps to show that this leads to a contradiction.



    **Thus our original assumption was untenable and hence we have proved that all numbers have a unique decomposition of primes.



    I have a problem understanding the star marked step.



    It's like saying, if we want to prove the man is happy, let us assume the man is unhappy.



    A logical sequence of steps leads to a contradiction.



    Hence, our initial assumption is flawed, so the man is 'happy'?!?



    What ensures that 'NOT unhappy' means 'happy' in the realm of math?



    Thank you for your time :)










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      Hey there Math community!



      I have a general question on contradiction and it's getting difficult to get my head around it.



      Notes:




      1. I have some background in math and I have read several proofs by contradiction already


      2. For the sake of the argument, let us assume the fundamental theorem of arithmetic



      As per the general strategy for the proof, we assume the opposite of something that we wish to prove to begin with.



      i.e A number that does NOT have a unique decomposition of primes.



      We then proceed by a logical sequence of steps to show that this leads to a contradiction.



      **Thus our original assumption was untenable and hence we have proved that all numbers have a unique decomposition of primes.



      I have a problem understanding the star marked step.



      It's like saying, if we want to prove the man is happy, let us assume the man is unhappy.



      A logical sequence of steps leads to a contradiction.



      Hence, our initial assumption is flawed, so the man is 'happy'?!?



      What ensures that 'NOT unhappy' means 'happy' in the realm of math?



      Thank you for your time :)










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Hey there Math community!



      I have a general question on contradiction and it's getting difficult to get my head around it.



      Notes:




      1. I have some background in math and I have read several proofs by contradiction already


      2. For the sake of the argument, let us assume the fundamental theorem of arithmetic



      As per the general strategy for the proof, we assume the opposite of something that we wish to prove to begin with.



      i.e A number that does NOT have a unique decomposition of primes.



      We then proceed by a logical sequence of steps to show that this leads to a contradiction.



      **Thus our original assumption was untenable and hence we have proved that all numbers have a unique decomposition of primes.



      I have a problem understanding the star marked step.



      It's like saying, if we want to prove the man is happy, let us assume the man is unhappy.



      A logical sequence of steps leads to a contradiction.



      Hence, our initial assumption is flawed, so the man is 'happy'?!?



      What ensures that 'NOT unhappy' means 'happy' in the realm of math?



      Thank you for your time :)







      formal-proofs






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      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 1 hour ago









      J. W. Tanner

      2,3761117




      2,3761117










      asked 2 hours ago









      hargun3045hargun3045

      7218




      7218






















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          $begingroup$

          This is called the law of excluded middle, and it is a kind of "meta-axiom" that most mathematicians accept.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













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            active

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            3












            $begingroup$

            This is called the law of excluded middle, and it is a kind of "meta-axiom" that most mathematicians accept.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              3












              $begingroup$

              This is called the law of excluded middle, and it is a kind of "meta-axiom" that most mathematicians accept.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                3












                3








                3





                $begingroup$

                This is called the law of excluded middle, and it is a kind of "meta-axiom" that most mathematicians accept.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                This is called the law of excluded middle, and it is a kind of "meta-axiom" that most mathematicians accept.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered 2 hours ago









                AGFAGF

                654




                654






























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